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CFA Program Level I

Macaulay vs modified duration: CFA Level I explained

Macaulay duration is the weighted-average time until a bond's cash flows arrive, with each cash flow weighted by its share of the bond's present value. Modified duration is Macaulay duration divided by (1 + yield per period), and it estimates the percentage price change for a change in yield. Use Macaulay for time, modified for price sensitivity.

Macaulay duration in three steps

Step 1: discount each coupon and principal payment at the bond's yield. The present values add up to the price.

Step 2: multiply each present value by the number of years until it is paid, and add the results.

Step 3: divide the step 2 total by the price. The answer is in years.

A zero-coupon bond has a duration equal to its maturity, because it has one cash flow. A coupon bond has a duration shorter than its maturity. For the same maturity, a higher coupon gives a shorter duration.

Modified duration and the price estimate

Modified duration = Macaulay duration / (1 + i/c), where i is the annual yield and c is the number of coupon payments a year. For an annual-pay bond that is simply Macaulay / (1 + yield).

Estimated % price change = -modified duration x change in yield (in decimals). The minus sign is the inverse price-yield relationship: yields up, prices down.

Example from the OTS handbook glossary: a semiannual bond with a Macaulay duration of 4 years and a 10% yield has a modified duration of 4 / (1 + 0.10/2) = 3.8. A 100 basis point move in rates changes its value by about 3.8%.

Worked example: 3-year 6% annual-coupon bond at a 5% yield

Cash flows are 6, 6 and 106 per 100 of par. Present values at 5%: 6 / 1.05 = 5.7143; 6 / 1.05^2 = 5.4422; 106 / 1.05^3 = 91.5668. Price = 102.7232.

Time-weighted: 1 x 5.7143 + 2 x 5.4422 + 3 x 91.5668 = 291.2990. Macaulay duration = 291.2990 / 102.7232 = 2.84 years.

Modified duration = 2.8358 / 1.05 = 2.70. If the yield rises 50 basis points, the estimate is -2.70 x 0.0050 = -1.35%.

Repricing the bond at 5.5% gives an actual change of -1.34%. The small gap is convexity.

Convexity: the second-order correction

The price-yield relationship is curved. A fall in yield raises the price by more than an equal rise in yield lowers it, so duration alone is accurate only for small yield changes.

Second-order estimate: % price change = -modified duration x change in yield + 1/2 x convexity x (change in yield)^2.

Example: modified duration 8, convexity 90, yield change 100 basis points. Duration alone gives -8% for a rise and +8% for a fall. With convexity: -8 x 0.01 + 0.5 x 90 x 0.0001 = -7.55% for a rise, and +8.45% for a fall. With positive convexity, the convexity term adds to the price in both directions.

Where the exam catches people

  • Believing modified duration is measured in years like Macaulay duration: it is a sensitivity, the approximate % price change for a 1 percentage point change in yield.
  • Believing you divide by (1 + annual yield) for a semiannual or quarterly bond: divide by (1 + yield per period), for example 1 + 0.08/4 for a quarterly-pay bond yielding 8%.
  • Believing a coupon bond's Macaulay duration equals its maturity: only a zero-coupon bond's does; coupons paid earlier pull a coupon bond's duration below maturity.
  • Believing duration gives the exact price change for a large yield move: for an option-free bond, duration overstates the loss when yields rise and understates the gain when they fall.
  • Forgetting the sign: a yield fall is a negative change, so -modified duration x (negative) gives a price gain.

Written from CFA Institute's documentation

Try 3 questions on this

Pick an answer to see why each option is right or wrong.

  1. A bond that pays coupons quarterly has a Macaulay duration of 6.20 years and a yield to maturity of 8.00 percent, stated as an annual rate with quarterly compounding. The bond's modified duration is closest to:

    Right. In the game that’s Renown for your Fixed Income building.

    Not that one: B is right. In the game your Fixed Income building would lose a little Renown, and this question would come back later.

  2. A three-year option-free bond with a par value of 100 pays a 5 percent coupon once a year, and its yield to maturity is 8 percent. The bond's Macaulay duration is closest to:

    Right. In the game that’s Renown for your Fixed Income building.

    Not that one: A is right. In the game your Fixed Income building would lose a little Renown, and this question would come back later.

    Show the full explanation and doc quotes

    Step 1, PVs at 8%: 5/1.08 = 4.6296; 5/1.08^2 = 4.2867; 105/1.08^3 = 83.3524; sum (price) = 92.2687. Step 2, time-weighted PVs: 1 x 4.6296 + 2 x 4.2867 + 3 x 83.3524 = 263.2602. Step 3: 263.2602/92.2687 = 2.85 years.

    Written from www.occ.gov/static/ots/exam-handbook/ots-exam-handbook-650aa.pdf

  3. An option-free bond has a modified duration of 7.20 and a convexity of 84. Its yield to maturity then falls by 75 basis points. Using the second-order approximation with duration and convexity, the estimated percentage change in the bond's price is closest to:

    Right. In the game that’s Renown for your Fixed Income building.

    Not that one: C is right. In the game your Fixed Income building would lose a little Renown, and this question would come back later.